Information for Candidates
University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations
Preliminary
English
Test
pet information for candidates 2
Why take the Preliminary English Test (PET)?
If you can deal with everyday written and spoken communications (e.g. read simple
books and articles, write simple personal letters, make notes during a meeting), then the
Preliminary English Test (PET) from Cambridge ESOL is the exam for you.
PET is the second level Cambridge ESOL exam. It is an intermediate level exam, at Level
B1 of the Council of Europe’s Common European Framework of Reference for Languages.
PET is a valuable qualification if you want to work or study abroad or to develop a career
in international business.
Studying for PET is a popular way to improve your language skills and use them in a
wide range of contexts. PET covers the four main language skills – reading, writing,
listening and speaking, using material from real life situations. It develops practical
skills, which will be of use in clerical, secretarial and managerial jobs, and in many
industries, such as tourism, where contact with English speakers is required.
PET is available in two formats. You can take the paper and pencil test, or you can take a
computer-based version called CB-PET instead. Please contact your nearest local centre
for details.
Why take a Cambridge ESOL exam?
Develop effective communication skills
• The Cambridge ESOL examinations cover all four language skills – listening, speaking,
reading and writing. They include a range of tasks which assess your ability to use
English, so that you develop the full range of skills you need to communicate
effectively in a variety of contexts.
Quality you can trust
• Cambridge ESOL examinations are backed by extensive research and
comprehensively trialled to make sure that you get the fairest, most accurate
assessment of your ability and that they are most relevant to the range of uses for
which you need English.
Worldwide recognition
• Universities and employers all over the world recognise Cambridge ESOL exams as a
measure of your achievement in English. Whether you are hoping to study
architecture in Australia or work in IT in Italy, a Cambridge ESOL examination is a
valuable stamp in your passport to success.
University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations (Cambridge ESOL) offers the world’s leading
range of qualifications for learners and teachers of English. Around 1.75 million people
in 135 countries take Cambridge ESOL exams each year.
What does PET involve?
This booklet is a brief introduction to PET. We show examples from each part of the test,
but in some cases we do not show the full text or all the questions. If you would like to
see a full sample paper for PET, you can download one from our website at:
www.CambridgeESOL.org
The table below shows the different parts of PET and how long each paper takes. In PET,
Reading and Writing are combined on one question paper.
Information for
candidates –
PET
* 2 examiners, 2 candidates (2:3 format is used for the last group in a session where necessary)
Name of paper Content Time allowed Marks (% of total)
Paper 1
Reading and Writing
Reading: 5 parts/35 questions
Writing: 3 parts/7 questions
1 hour 30 minutes Reading: 25%
Writing: 25%
Paper 2
Listening
4 parts/25 questions about 35 minutes (including
6 minutes’ transfer time)
25%
Paper 3
Speaking
4 parts 10–12 minutes per pair of
candidates (2:2 format*)
25%
pet information for candidates 3
I Paper 1 Reading and Writing
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Reading
Part 1 (Questions 1–5)
In the first part of the Reading paper you have to read and understand different kinds of
short texts. These may be notices and signs, packaging information (for example
instructions on a food package or a label on a medicine bottle) and communicative
messages (notes, e-mails, cards and postcards).
In the example below you can see two typical examples of the type of question you will
find in Part 1. Read the text and decide which is the best answer (A, B or C). In the exam
there are three more questions like the ones below.
Part 2 (Questions 6–10)
In Part 2 you will find five descriptions of people. There are then eight short texts on a
particular topic. This may be goods and services of some kind (for example, purchasing
books, visiting museums, staying in hotels or choosing holidays). You have to match
each person to one of the texts.
In the examples below you have some information about two people, Ali and Monica,
and what they like to read. There are then five texts about different books. You have to
decide which books (A–E) Monica and Ali would enjoy most. In the exam there is
information about three more people and three more books for you.
1 A Tickets for the disco can be collected after
tomorrow.
B It is possible to reserve a disco ticket if you
do so by tomorrow.
C Reserved tickets for the disco must be paid
for today.
2 A
B
C
Press the button after the doors close.
Press the button while the doors are closing.
Press the button to close the lift doors.
Saturday's Disco
There aren't any tickets left.
Anyone who ordered a ticket
and hasn't given me the
money should do so before
tomorrow.
José Martin
Ali enjoys reading crime stories which are carefully written so
that they hold his interest right to the end. He enjoys trying to
guess who the criminal really is while he’s reading.
Monica is a history teacher in London. She enjoys reading
about the history of people in other parts of the world and how
events changed their lives.
6
7
Part 3 (Questions 11–20)
In Part 3 you have to read a longer, factual text and look for precise information. The
texts may be brochure extracts, advertisements in magazines and website information.
Before you read the text, there are ten questions which are single-sentence statements
about the text. You have to decide whether each statement is correct or not correct.
In the example below you have five sentences (11–15) about a journey to the Arctic on
board a ship. Read the text ‘Exploring the Arctic’ and then decide if each sentence is
correct or incorrect. In the exam, there are five more sentences like the ones below. You
mark A on your answer sheet if the sentence is correct and B, if it is not correct.
pet information for candidates 4
A London Alive
This author of many famous novels
has now turned to writing short
stories with great success. The
stories tell of Londoners’ daily
lives and happen in eighteen
different places – for example, one
story takes place at a table in a café,
another in the back of a taxi and
another in a hospital.
D Gone West
A serious look at one of the leastknown
regions of the United States.
The author describes the empty
villages which thousands left when
they were persuaded by the railway
companies to go West in search of
new lives. The author manages to
provide many interesting details
about their history.
E The Letter
The murder of a television star
appears to be the work of thieves
who are quickly caught. But they
escape from prison and a young
lawyer says she knows who the real
criminals are. Written with
intelligence, this story is so fastmoving
that it demands the reader’s
complete attention.
Recommended New Books
B Burnham’s Great Days
Joseph Burnham is one of Britain’s
best-loved painters these days, but I
was interested to read that during
his lifetime it was not always so.
Art historian Peter Harvey looks at
how Burnham’s work attracted
interest at first but then became less
popular.
C The Missing Photograph
Another story about the wellknown
policeman, Inspector
Manning. It is written in the same
simple but successful way as the
other Manning stories – I found it a
bit disappointing as I guessed who
the criminal was halfway through!
The Arctic is one of the few places in the world untouched by pollution where you can see
nature at its wildest and most beautiful. Join our ship the Northern Star from 2 to 18 July, for
a 17-day voyage to the Arctic. During the voyage you are able to relax and get away from it
all. There are no parties or film-shows to attend, quizzes to enter, or entertainers to watch.
However, we do have specialists on board who are willing to answer any of your questions
about the Arctic and who will talk about the animals and birds that you see on the trip.
After setting off from Scotland, we go north along the coast of Norway to Bear Island. Along
the way you'll see thousands of seabirds and wonderful scenery, with rivers of ice and huge
cliffs. You will have the chance to see reindeer, polar bears, and other Arctic animals.
Although we have a timetable, experience has shown that we may have to change our
direction a little, depending on the weather and on which animals appear.
The Northern Star is a very special ship and our past voyages have been very popular. Our cabins all have the same excellent facilities,
which include a private bathroom and refrigerator. Our chefs are happy to prepare any food for people on special diets. Choose just
what you want to eat from the wide variety available from the dining room buffet. There is a library, shop, clinic and plenty of space for
relaxation. If you need some exercise, why not go jogging every morning around the decks, or do some swimming in the indoor pool.
Prices include economy class air travel and 16 nights on board the Northern Star, all meals and excursions and all lectures.
Day 1 Board the Northern Star.
Days 2–7 We sail slowly north along the coast of Norway, stopping at places of interest.
. . .
Exploring the Arctic
11 This trip is for people who like peace and quiet.
12 Many different activities are organised on board.
13 The voyage begins in Scotland.
14 The ship follows a fixed route.
15 There are different types of accommodation.
pet information for candidates 5
Part 4 (Questions 21–25)
In Part 4 the text you have to read expresses opinion or attitude. There are then five
questions for you to answer. For each question we give you four possible answers
(A, B, C or D) and you have to choose the right one.
The text below is about TV chef, Ainsley Harriott. Read the text and try to answer
questions 21 and 22. In the exam, there are three more questions like the ones below.
Part 5 (Questions 26–35)
In this part of the Reading paper, you have a short text with ten numbered spaces. You
have to find the missing word for each space. The spaces are designed to test mainly
vocabulary but also a grammatical point such as pronouns, modal verbs, connectives
and prepositions. After the text, we give you four possible answers for each numbered
space and you have to choose the right one.
Below is part of a text called ‘Deep Sleep’. On the next page there are four possible
answers for each of the first five numbered spaces (26–30). Read the answers and try to
decide which is the right missing word (A, B, C or D). In the exam there are five more sets
of answers like the ones below.
Ainsley Harriott
I’ve always been a bit of an entertainer and played the funny man. I was a part-time comedian for
years, so I learned how to stand in front of audiences. It made me sure of myself. I like being liked
and I love making everyone smile.
I’ve lived in London all my life and have just moved to a larger house with my wife Clare and our
two children, Jimmy and Madeleine. We spend a lot of time just singing and dancing around the
house. I grew up with music because my dad is the pianist, Chester Harriott – who’s still playing,
by the way. My working day is divided between television and writing cook books, though TV
takes most of my time. I spend about five days a fortnight working on the cooking programmes I
appear in. I eat all sorts of things at home but I only buy quality food. When I’m cooking, I
experiment with whatever is in the fridge – it’s good practice for my TV series.
I’m a football fan and enjoy going to matches, but I’m a home-loving person really. I don’t like
going to the pub but we do go out to eat about twice a month. There’s nothing better than a night
at home playing with the children. I rarely go to bed before midnight. Late evening is when fresh
thoughts on cooking usually come to me, so I often write or plan my programmes then. When I
eventually get to bed, I have no trouble sleeping!
21 What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text?
A to describe how he lives
B to say what makes him laugh
C to talk about his cooking ideas
D to explain how he started in TV
22 What would a reader learn about Ainsley from the text?
A He is a very good musician.
B He likes to plan the family meals.
C He is nervous about performing on stage.
D He enjoys spending time with his family.
. . .
pet information for candidates 6
Writing
Part 1 (Questions 1–5)
There are five questions to answer in Part 1 of the Writing paper. For each question, you
have one sentence which is complete and a second sentence which has a missing word
or words. You have to complete the second sentence with between one and three words
so that it means the same as the first sentence. All five sentences share a common
theme or topic.
In the example below, there are some sentences about playing tennis (1–3). For each
question, read the first sentence and then try to find the missing words to complete the
second sentence. Remember that the second sentence must have the same meaning as
the first one. In the exam there are two more questions like the ones below.
Part 2 (Question 6)
For Part 2 you have to write a short, communicative message of between 35 and 45
words. The instructions in the question tell you who you are writing to and why you are
writing. There are also three bullet points which tell you the content you must include in
your answer. Remember to read the instructions carefully and plan your answer to cover
everything.
26 A size B number C amount D sum
27 A on B to C in D of
28 A could B ought C must D should
29 A ways B habits C manners D actions
30 A few B well C less D enough
1 It’s too cold to play tennis.
It isn’t warm ……………………………….. to play tennis.
2 There are only a few squash courts in this town.
There aren’t very ……………………………….. squash courts in this town.
3 If you don’t play every week, you won’t improve your tennis.
You won’t improve your tennis unless ……………………………….. every week.
pet information for candidates 7
In the example below you have to write a card to thank James for a party he gave.
Part 3 (Question 7 or 8)
In Part 3 you can choose to write either an informal letter or a story. You should write
about 100 words.
For the letter, you have to read an extract of a letter from a friend of yours and you then
have to write a reply to your friend. The letter from your friend will tell you what to write
about. For the story, we give you either a short title or the first sentence of the story.
In the two examples below, you have to write to your friend about your favourite TV
programme. Make sure that you answer all your friend’s questions in your reply.
Question 6
An English friend of yours called James gave a party yesterday, which you enjoyed.
Write a card to send to James. In your card, you should
• thank him for the party
• say what you liked best
• suggest when you could both meet again.
Write 35-45 words on your answer sheet.
Question 7
• This is part of a letter you receive from an English penfriend.
• Now write a letter, answering your penfriend’s questions.
• Write your letter on your answer sheet.
Question 8
• Your English teacher has asked you to write a story.
• Your story must begin with this sentence:
I felt nervous when the phone rang.
• Write your story on your answer sheet.
In your next letter, please tell me all about
your favourite TV programme. Why do you
like watching it? What’s it about?
:
Write 35–45 words on your answer sheet.
pet information for candidates 8
I Paper 2 Listening
Time: approx. 35 minutes including 6 minutes’ transfer time
Part 1 (Questions 1–7)
In this part of the test, there are seven short listening texts taken from daily life. These
may be conversations at home or between friends, radio announcements, parts of talks,
exchanges in shops, etc. For each text there is a question and three pictures. You have to
listen to the recording and choose the picture which best answers the question.
Below we give you two examples of typical questions. Read each question and look at
the pictures to get an idea of the kind of conversations which are on the recording and
the information you will need to listen for. You have to choose the right answer
(A, B or C). In the exam, there are five more questions like the ones below.
Part 2 (Questions 8–13)
In Part 2 you have to listen to a longer recording which may be either a monologue, or an
interview with questions from a radio presenter. You hear the recording twice. There are
then six multiple-choice questions with three possible answers for each one.
In the example below, the recording is a review of tonight’s television programmes. You
have to listen and choose the right answer (A, B or C) for each question (8–10). In the
exam, there are three more questions like the ones below.
ü
1 What does the man receive in the post?
A B C
2 What did the man buy?
A B C
ü
8 The film about insects is A badly photographed.
B unsuitable for some people.
C much too long.
9 Tonight's Miller and Edwards A has fewer jokes than usual.
programme B is longer than usual.
C is continued next week.
10 Policewatch is not on television A another programme has taken its place.
tonight because B Andy McKay is ill.
C you can’t see it on Thursdays any more.
pet information for candidates 9
Part 3 (Questions 14–19)
The recording for Part 3 is also a longer text. This may be a radio announcement or a
recorded message which gives information about places and events. Sometimes it is a
talk or a radio programme, in which people are talking about courses, trips or holiday
activities. You will hear the recording twice. On the question paper you will find a page
of notes summarising the content of the text. Six pieces of information are missing from
the notes and you have to listen to the recording, find the correct information and write
it in the numbered gaps.
In the example below, the recording is of a tour guide talking to some guests at their
hotel. There are six spaces (14–19) where information is missing. You have to listen to
the recording and write down the correct information in each space.
Part 4 (Questions 20–25)
In Part 4 you will hear a recording of two people talking. It’s an informal conversation
about everyday topics and the two people will talk about their opinions and agree or
disagree on certain points. There are then six statements and you have to decide
whether each statement is right or wrong.
The Riverside Hotel
Tour Guide
The office is (14) .................... the reception desk.
Meals
Breakfast: in the Green Room on the first floor beside the lifts.
Food for trips: collect from the (15) .............................. at 9.00 a.m.
Dinner: hotel restaurant famous for its (16) ................................ dishes.
Riverboat Trip
Day: (17) ................................
Time: afternoon and evening
Cost of Holiday
Everything is included except (18) ................................
Facilities
It’s possible to swim from (19) ................................ a.m. until 10.00 p.m.
pet information for candidates 10
In the example below Lucy and Edward are talking about pocket money. You have to read
the statements (20–22) and decide whether each one is right (A) or wrong (B). In the
exam, there are three more statements like the ones below.
At the end of the Listening test you have six minutes to transfer your answers to the
answer sheet.
I Paper 3 Speaking
Time: 10–12 minutes per pair of candidates
In the Speaking test, there are two oral examiners and you take the test in a pair with
another candidate. At centres with an uneven number of candidates, the last pair will be
examined in a group of three. The Speaking test is worth 25% of the total marks.
Part 1
The first part of the test is a general conversation. One of the examiners will talk to each
of you in turn and will ask you for personal details, about your daily routines, likes and
dislikes, etc. The examiner will ask you at some point to spell all or part of your name.
Part 2
In Part 2 you have to take part in a simulated situation with the other candidate. For
example, you may have to make and respond to suggestions, discuss alternatives, make
recommendations and negotiate agreement with your partner.
To help you with this part of the test, the examiner will give you a prompt sheet like the
one below and give you some instructions. In this case, the examiner will tell you that a
friend of yours is planning to spend six months in England to improve her English. You
A B
YES NO
20 At first, Edward thinks Lucy gets enough pocket money.
21 Lucy’s friends get more pocket money than she does.
22 Lucy is happy to pay for her own music.
pet information for candidates 11
have to talk together about the things she will need in England and discuss which are
the most important things she should bring with her.
Part 3
For Part 3 the examiner will give you a colour photograph like the one below. You have to
describe what you can see in the photograph. The examiner then gives your partner a
different colour photograph to describe.
Part 4
In this last part of the test, you have to talk with your partner. The examiner will give
you a subject which is related to the two photographs you described in Part 3. In this
case, the subject is reading and writing. The examiner asks you to talk about the kinds of
reading and writing you did when you were younger and what kinds of reading and
writing you do now.
Preparing for PET
If you would like more practice material to help you prepare for the PET exam, there are
past paper packs available to buy which include an audio CD of the Listening test. You
can find more information, prices and details of how to order on our website at:
www.CambridgeESOL.org/support/pastpapers.htm
Next steps
We wish you every success in taking PET and we hope that you will take other
Cambridge ESOL exams in future. The First Certificate in English (FCE) is the next level of
the Cambridge exams. You can find more information about FCE on our website at:
www.CambridgeESOL.org/exams/fce.htm
University of Cambridge
ESOL Examinations
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU
United Kingdom
Tel. +44 1223 553355
Fax. +44 1223 460278
email ESOL@CambridgeESOL.org
© UCLES 2006 EMC | 3813 | 6Y05 NOT FOR RESALE
www.CambridgeESOL.org/PET
I decided to take the PET exam because I want to go to the USA when I’ll have finished school.
And I think it’s good for my working career.
Daniel Butz, Germany
Each level (of the Cambridge exams) has given me more tools to improve my skills. … Cambridge
has really given me a head start in my future career.
Paola Marisela González, Mexico
What some
students have said
about PET
3M
Adidas
Agfa-Gevaert
AstraZeneca
AT&T
Barclays Bank
BASF
Bayer
BP
British Airways
Cable & Wireless
Carrefour
Citibank
Coca-Cola
Colgate-Palmolive
Credit Suisse
DaimlerChrysler
Dell
Deutsche Bank
DHL
Disney
DuPont
Ericsson
Estée Lauder
General Motors
Gillette
GlaxoSmithKline
Goodyear
Hertz
Hewlett-Packard
HSBC
IBM
Johnson & Johnson
KPMG
Microsoft
Mobil Oil
Nestlé
Nokia
PepsiCo
Philips
PriceWaterhouseCoopers
Procter & Gamble
Rank Xerox
Roche
Rolls-Royce
Shell
Siemens
Sony
Sun Microsystems
Texaco
Toyota
Unilever
Vodafone
World Bank
World Health Organisation (WHO)
World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
Companies who
recognise
Cambridge ESOL
exams
For a full list of companies and educational institutions who recognise PET, please visit
our website at:
www.CambridgeESOL.org/recognition/index.php